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  1. Asked: July 5, 2022In: Alternative Inv (CFA L1)

    commodity investment

    Universe Pro
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 9:11 pm

    Contango is a condition in the futures markets in which the spot price is lower than the futures price, the forward curve is upward sloping this is ↑ correct que mein error hai check in 2022 CFA Program: Level I Errata

    Contango is a condition in the futures markets in which the spot price is lower than the futures price, the forward curve is upward sloping

    this is ↑ correct que mein error hai check in 2022 CFA Program: Level I Errata

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    • 0
  2. Asked: July 5, 2022In: Alternative Inv (CFA L1)

    private equity performance

    KunalSrivastava Pro
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 8:58 pm

    Option A  in totally wrong because it is talking about MWROR relies on timing of cash flows. Option B is wrong because it says, Pvt. Equity has low volatility. So by this Option B is correct. Honestly, I was also not sure that why two rates being discussed in IRR because there is only re-investmentRead more

    Option A  in totally wrong because it is talking about MWROR relies on timing of cash flows.

    Option B is wrong because it says, Pvt. Equity has low volatility.

    So by this Option B is correct. Honestly, I was also not sure that why two rates being discussed in IRR because there is only re-investment assumption  at IRR and discount rate is also not needed for IRR calculation. But after reading solution its clear that IRR needs two rates, one for comparison with discount rate and another ofcourse IRR itself. Option B is right.

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    • 0
  3. Asked: July 5, 2022In: Corp. Finance (CFA L1)

    Describe types of real options relevant to capital investment

    KunalSrivastava Pro
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 8:44 pm

    Please share the answer.

    Please share the answer.

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    • 0
  4. Asked: July 5, 2022In: Alternative Inv (CFA L1)

    Calculation of fees of hedge fund

    KunalSrivastava Pro
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 8:33 pm

    Firstly calculate Management fee & Incentive fee of year 1 which is (2% of 112 and 20% of 112). Now value of fund at the end of Y1=106.96 Now in year 2, Management fee is (2% of 100 and no incentive fees), Value at the end of year 2 is 98. In year 3, management fee is (2% of 116 and incentive feRead more

    Firstly calculate Management fee & Incentive fee of year 1 which is (2% of 112 and 20% of 112). Now value of fund at the end of Y1=106.96

    Now in year 2, Management fee is (2% of 100 and no incentive fees), Value at the end of year 2 is 98.

    In year 3, management fee is (2% of 116 and incentive fee considering high water mark provision is 20% of 116-106.96). So value at the end of year 3 after all fees is 111.872.

    Now simply compute the net of fees return (111.872-98/98)*100=14.16% Answer

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  5. Asked: July 4, 2022In: Economics (CFA L1)

    Firm and Market Structure

    zainabmoiz17@gmail.com Beginner
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 8:04 pm

    At Price= LR Average Cost, firm is earning normal profit which is most suitable for govt. At P=MC, firm will be in loss, which would have to be subsidized by the government authority. However, in the question, they're talking about the most suitable option for the govt. which would be Option B. PricRead more

    At Price= LR Average Cost, firm is earning normal profit which is most suitable for govt.

    At P=MC, firm will be in loss, which would have to be subsidized by the government authority. However, in the question, they’re talking about the most suitable option for the govt. which would be Option B.

    Price discrimination is when firm charges different prices for different quantity based on how much each customer is WILLING to pay per unit(i.e. different cost for each unit). Govt. would not want any monopoly to charge at first degree price discrimination.

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  6. Asked: July 5, 2022In: Economics (CFA L2)

    Carry trade net return

    Himanshu Shah Advanced
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 8:01 pm
    This answer was edited.

    JPY /EUR Spot = 127.6295 / 127.9317 After 1 year = 129.9627 Borrow 100 JPY at 0.15% Invest it in EUR at 1.4% Conversion amount = 100/127.9317 = 0.7817 0.7817 + 1.4% = 0.7926 Convert back into JPY = 07926 * 129.9627 = 103.0084 Return = 103.0084 - 100.15 / 100.15 = 2.85% Hope you get it  

    JPY /EUR Spot = 127.6295 / 127.9317

    After 1 year = 129.9627

    Borrow 100 JPY at 0.15%

    Invest it in EUR at 1.4%

    Conversion amount = 100/127.9317 = 0.7817

    0.7817 + 1.4% = 0.7926

    Convert back into JPY = 07926 * 129.9627 = 103.0084

    Return = 103.0084 – 100.15 / 100.15 = 2.85%

    Hope you get it

     

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    • 0
  7. Asked: July 5, 2022In: Quants (CFA L1)

    Time value of money(Annuity Section)

    Best Answer
    saikrishnacheeti Pro
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 7:25 pm

    Payment at the end of the period then end mode payment at the beginning of period then BGN mode If there is any confusion draw a timeline or give a real date then things will be clear. I know this is a very generic answer but your question was not specific. If you have any question where you got conRead more

    Payment at the end of the period then end mode

    payment at the beginning of period then BGN mode

    If there is any confusion draw a timeline or give a real date then things will be clear.

    I know this is a very generic answer but your question was not specific. If you have any question where you got confused please attach the image in reply so that i can explain it better

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    • 0
  8. Asked: July 2, 2022In: Quants (CFA L2)

    Auto corelation test

    jhaprashant14@gmail.com Intermediate
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 6:20 pm

    We have to use autocorrelation when the trend of the model is mean reverting and autocorrelation can only be used when it's a covariance stationary.. inorder to check for covariance stationary we use DF test which check whether b1 is equal to 1 or not if b1=1 then we can't use autocorrelation as it'Read more

    We have to use autocorrelation when the trend of the model is mean reverting and autocorrelation can only be used when it’s a covariance stationary.. inorder to check for covariance stationary we use DF test which check whether b1 is equal to 1 or not if b1=1 then we can’t use autocorrelation as it’s not covariance stationary

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    • 0
  9. Asked: July 3, 2022In: Quants (CFA L2)

    AR model Qunats

    jhaprashant14@gmail.com Intermediate
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 6:08 pm

    I guess it's mean reverting thats why

    I guess it’s mean reverting thats why

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    • 1
  10. Asked: July 5, 2022In: Corp. Finance (CFA L1)

    Cost of capital

    saikrishnacheeti Pro
    Added an answer on July 5, 2022 at 5:38 pm

    Please go through this. The answer will be 7(1-0.4)=4.2%

    Please go through this. The answer will be 7(1-0.4)=4.2%

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    • 1

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