In valuing real estate using DCF approach, suppose NOI is same for 5 years and in the 6th year, there is a one time increase of 10% and terminal Ke is 15%. So we find terminal value using this 15% ...
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Under deal-by-deal method, I m getting 3 million carried interest amount – Deal 1 – (25-20)*0.2 = 1 million Deal 2 – (35-45)*0.2 = -2 (max. -1 million, therefore cumulative carried interest = 0) Deal 3 – (65-50)*0.2 = 3 million So by end ...
Shouldn’t the answer be $38,400,000 instead of $37,050,000?
Can someone provide a solution for this? Unable to understand the institute solutions
If the explicit forecast period is 3 years then CRI is calcuated using RI4 (RI of year 4 – like GGM in case of dividends) or RI3? In core EOC question, they have done using RI3 – that’s what Sir said ...
The given question relates to Q.25 – EOC core Pg. No. 258. In this, unable to get it that how did they calculate persistence factor of 0.7??
If believe points(USD/EUR) should be reduced from the given ask rate(USD/EUR) in exhibit 1 ...
Suppose YTM is 5% and expected % change in price is -1.75% then expected return should be (5+1.75)% right? In the core, EOC question no. 17, they have done (5-1.75)%.
How come excerpt 2 is wrong? Shouldn’t final answer be A since both excerpts are in complaince with C/S??
In Portfolio Management (Economics and Investment Markets), it is stated that Real Estate is a weak hedge against inflation but in Alternate Investments (Pvt. Real Estate), it is stated that Real Estate is a good hedge against inflation. Is it that ...