First, convert the continuosly compouded rate into effective rate using calc as: 0.042 2nd LN = 1.04289 subtract 1 and multiply by 100. hence, Effective rate= 4.29 now lets use tvm mode: 4.29 I/Y 3 N 3200 +- PV cpt FV = 3629.7 so my guess was option B
First, convert the continuosly compouded rate into effective rate using calc as:
0.042 2nd LN = 1.04289
subtract 1 and multiply by 100.
hence, Effective rate= 4.29
now lets use tvm mode:
4.29 I/Y
3 N
3200 +- PV
cpt FV = 3629.7
so my guess was option B
Pmt is written for the explanation that pmt is coupon amount.we calculate the Present value of coupon amount. so for mathematical equation, it is written like that. for calculating, we say that we are getting 6 after 1 year. so treat it like FV and pull its PV if different spot rates are given.
Pmt is written for the explanation that pmt is coupon amount. we calculate the Present value of coupon amount. so for mathematical equation, it is written like that. for calculating, we say that we are getting 6 after 1 year. so treat it like FV and pull its PV if different spot rates are given.
for calculating EPS, we always deduct preferred dividend from net income. In case of dilutive EPS, if the preferrence shares are convertible, we check if they are anti dilutive or not. if they are not anti-dilutive, we add back the preferrence dividend.
for calculating EPS, we always deduct preferred dividend from net income.
In case of dilutive EPS, if the preferrence shares are convertible, we check if they are anti dilutive or not.
if they are not anti-dilutive, we add back the preferrence dividend.
QM – frequency of compounding
First, convert the continuosly compouded rate into effective rate using calc as: 0.042 2nd LN = 1.04289 subtract 1 and multiply by 100. hence, Effective rate= 4.29 now lets use tvm mode: 4.29 I/Y 3 N 3200 +- PV cpt FV = 3629.7 so my guess was option B
First, convert the continuosly compouded rate into effective rate using calc as:
0.042 2nd LN = 1.04289
subtract 1 and multiply by 100.
hence, Effective rate= 4.29
now lets use tvm mode:
See less4.29 I/Y
3 N
3200 +- PV
cpt FV = 3629.7
so my guess was option B
QM – frequency of compounding
option B ?
option B ?
See lessCalculator
Pmt is written for the explanation that pmt is coupon amount.we calculate the Present value of coupon amount. so for mathematical equation, it is written like that. for calculating, we say that we are getting 6 after 1 year. so treat it like FV and pull its PV if different spot rates are given.
Pmt is written for the explanation that pmt is coupon amount.
See lesswe calculate the Present value of coupon amount. so for mathematical equation, it is written like that.
for calculating, we say that we are getting 6 after 1 year.
so treat it like FV and pull its PV if different spot rates are given.
Calculator
For 1st yr: 6 FV , 8 I/y , 1 N , cpt pv 5.55 2nd yr: 6 FV, 9 I/y , 2 N , cpt pv 5.05 3 yr: 106 FV, 10 I/y , 3 N , cpt pv 79.64
For 1st yr: 6 FV , 8 I/y , 1 N , cpt pv 5.55
See less2nd yr: 6 FV, 9 I/y , 2 N , cpt pv 5.05
3 yr: 106 FV, 10 I/y , 3 N , cpt pv 79.64
Global investment performance standards(GIPS)
Okay, Thankyou
Okay, Thankyou
See lessUnderstanding Income Statement
for calculating EPS, we always deduct preferred dividend from net income. In case of dilutive EPS, if the preferrence shares are convertible, we check if they are anti dilutive or not. if they are not anti-dilutive, we add back the preferrence dividend.
for calculating EPS, we always deduct preferred dividend from net income.
See lessIn case of dilutive EPS, if the preferrence shares are convertible, we check if they are anti dilutive or not.
if they are not anti-dilutive, we add back the preferrence dividend.
Equity CFAL1
option 1 is correct
option 1 is correct
See lessportfolio management question cfa lvl 1
calculate Beta of portfolio as covariance/variance of portfolio = (0.8 X 30 X 15)/225 =1.6 now use CAPM eq. Rf + (Rm-Rf)Beta 6+(8)1.6 = 18.8%
calculate Beta of portfolio as covariance/variance of portfolio = (0.8 X 30 X 15)/225 =1.6
now use CAPM eq. Rf + (Rm-Rf)Beta
6+(8)1.6 = 18.8%
See lessDemand and supply
Is the answer Option A?
Is the answer Option A?
Time Value of Money
n=4 *** (correction)
n=4 *** (correction)
See less