What they want to say is that imagine a stock price is falling or is in downtrend from long time now this trend is consolidating in a range for sometime and after that it further breaks on the downside and goes for down. Therefore answer is A as it shows the downtrend is further continued after theRead more
What they want to say is that imagine a stock price is falling or is in downtrend from long time now this trend is consolidating in a range for sometime and after that it further breaks on the downside and goes for down. Therefore answer is A as it shows the downtrend is further continued after the consolidation.
Do classes well, atleast 2 class every day is good and keep Sundays for practice questions of what you studied during the week. Analyze your performance till last early registration of Aug 23 and take decision Accordingly.
Do classes well, atleast 2 class every day is good and keep Sundays for practice questions of what you studied during the week. Analyze your performance till last early registration of Aug 23 and take decision Accordingly.
Step 1; PV=-10000, N=2, I/Y=9, CPT=FV=11881 Now, step 2; PV=-11881, N=3 , I/Y= 12.75, CPT=FV=17029 answer. Since 12% is continually compounding, take 0.12, press 2nd button and Ln button now do minus 1, resulted number is your return continues compounding.
Option A is ruled out because if leverage is low, debt-equity conflict will not increase. Option B is ruled out because if company debt is secured debt than equity shareholders will not have any conflict as company will definitely pay back to debt holders in case it defaults. Hence less conflict. AnRead more
Option A is ruled out because if leverage is low, debt-equity conflict will not increase.
Option B is ruled out because if company debt is secured debt than equity shareholders will not have any conflict as company will definitely pay back to debt holders in case it defaults. Hence less conflict.
Answer is option C on ground of elimination also the reason I think is that if debt are long term than probably the shareholder suffers as int. Exp might cover most part of the earnings and therefore resulting a conflict between debt and equity.
Formula is simple, See, sabse phele you find combination ki 4 quarter me se 3 times out perform karega to sabse phele hamlog lege 4C3 ab iske bad outperform ki prob. hai 0..75 isliye hamlog lete hai 0.75^3 yani prob out outperforming to the power kitni bar outperform karega and fir jab 0.75 outperfoRead more
Formula is simple, See, sabse phele you find combination ki 4 quarter me se 3 times out perform karega to sabse phele hamlog lege 4C3 ab iske bad outperform ki prob. hai 0..75 isliye hamlog lete hai 0.75^3 yani prob out outperforming to the power kitni bar outperform karega and fir jab 0.75 outperform hai to yani 0.25% underperformance hai jime ham log 0.25^1 lege matlab out of 4, 3 bar kiya aur 1 bar nahi kiya..
Ab in sabko multiple kare to ek term ki prob. ajayegi.
Similarly question me keh raha hai 3 or less than that..to use kam hue 3,2,1,0
to aise karke ham 4 term layege as done above aur sabka sum hamara answer hoga.. try ek bar khud se.
Generally, if Average collection period is low, it is good for the company because; 'Paisa ana har agar to jaldi aye to badiya hai' While if Average payables period are high, it is good for the company because, 'Agar paisa jana hi hai to deri se jaye to better'
Generally, if Average collection period is low, it is good for the company because; ‘Paisa ana har agar to jaldi aye to badiya hai’
While if Average payables period are high, it is good for the company because, ‘Agar paisa jana hi hai to deri se jaye to better’
its fine. See, 0.0711=(1-weight of equity)×0.6×0.06 + weight of equity×0.09 (I hope ye equation samaj agai hogi, sare percentage ko hataya hai isme bas) Ab iske agge aise solve hoga.. aur weight of equity ko hamlog (We) samaj ge... ok? 0.0711= (1-We)*0.0360 + We*0.09 Ab sabse phele is bracket wale kRead more
its fine.
See,
0.0711=(1-weight of equity)×0.6×0.06 + weight of equity×0.09
(I hope ye equation samaj agai hogi, sare percentage ko hataya hai isme bas)
Ab iske agge aise solve hoga.. aur weight of equity ko hamlog (We) samaj ge… ok?
0.0711= (1-We)*0.0360 + We*0.09
Ab sabse phele is bracket wale ko solve karege…jisme 0.0360 ko multiply kare (1-We) se
See, logic in both the question is same. I agree this question is a bit confusing, I got stuck too, had to refer to book to understand again. But remember this logic now. When the confidence interval is widen...? It is widen when your degree of confidence that result will fall into the confidence inRead more
See, logic in both the question is same. I agree this question is a bit confusing, I got stuck too, had to refer to book to understand again.
But remember this logic now.
When the confidence interval is widen…? It is widen when your degree of confidence that result will fall into the confidence interval is Low… right? Just think once.
Also, degree of confidence is equal to (1-alpha)
Now, when alpha is high than your degree of confidence is low and now when your degree of confidence is low, your confidence interval will widen.
That is why answer is A in question. And same logic in Question 50.
There will be multiple IRR in this case as values are changing more than one times. Like in year 1 you invested 100 now in year 2, you got back 1000 also invested 100, therefore net effect will 900 and again in year 3, you put 100. Due to this there will more then 1 IRR in this case.
There will be multiple IRR in this case as values are changing more than one times. Like in year 1 you invested 100 now in year 2, you got back 1000 also invested 100, therefore net effect will 900 and again in year 3, you put 100.
Due to this there will more then 1 IRR in this case.
Technical Analysis
What they want to say is that imagine a stock price is falling or is in downtrend from long time now this trend is consolidating in a range for sometime and after that it further breaks on the downside and goes for down. Therefore answer is A as it shows the downtrend is further continued after theRead more
What they want to say is that imagine a stock price is falling or is in downtrend from long time now this trend is consolidating in a range for sometime and after that it further breaks on the downside and goes for down. Therefore answer is A as it shows the downtrend is further continued after the consolidation.
See lesscan i complete my cfa syllabus for august 23 if i have started now (dec 15) i am a third year student with sixth sem exam in may
Do classes well, atleast 2 class every day is good and keep Sundays for practice questions of what you studied during the week. Analyze your performance till last early registration of Aug 23 and take decision Accordingly.
Do classes well, atleast 2 class every day is good and keep Sundays for practice questions of what you studied during the week. Analyze your performance till last early registration of Aug 23 and take decision Accordingly.
See lessTime Value Of Money
Step 1; PV=-10000, N=2, I/Y=9, CPT=FV=11881 Now, step 2; PV=-11881, N=3 , I/Y= 12.75, CPT=FV=17029 answer. Since 12% is continually compounding, take 0.12, press 2nd button and Ln button now do minus 1, resulted number is your return continues compounding.
Step 1; PV=-10000, N=2, I/Y=9, CPT=FV=11881
Now, step 2; PV=-11881, N=3 , I/Y= 12.75, CPT=FV=17029 answer.
Since 12% is continually compounding, take 0.12, press 2nd button and Ln button now do minus 1, resulted number is your return continues compounding.
See lessCapital Structure
Option A is ruled out because if leverage is low, debt-equity conflict will not increase. Option B is ruled out because if company debt is secured debt than equity shareholders will not have any conflict as company will definitely pay back to debt holders in case it defaults. Hence less conflict. AnRead more
Option A is ruled out because if leverage is low, debt-equity conflict will not increase.
Option B is ruled out because if company debt is secured debt than equity shareholders will not have any conflict as company will definitely pay back to debt holders in case it defaults. Hence less conflict.
Answer is option C on ground of elimination also the reason I think is that if debt are long term than probably the shareholder suffers as int. Exp might cover most part of the earnings and therefore resulting a conflict between debt and equity.
More views are welcome.
See lessProbability
Formula is simple, See, sabse phele you find combination ki 4 quarter me se 3 times out perform karega to sabse phele hamlog lege 4C3 ab iske bad outperform ki prob. hai 0..75 isliye hamlog lete hai 0.75^3 yani prob out outperforming to the power kitni bar outperform karega and fir jab 0.75 outperfoRead more
Formula is simple, See, sabse phele you find combination ki 4 quarter me se 3 times out perform karega to sabse phele hamlog lege 4C3 ab iske bad outperform ki prob. hai 0..75 isliye hamlog lete hai 0.75^3 yani prob out outperforming to the power kitni bar outperform karega and fir jab 0.75 outperform hai to yani 0.25% underperformance hai jime ham log 0.25^1 lege matlab out of 4, 3 bar kiya aur 1 bar nahi kiya..
Ab in sabko multiple kare to ek term ki prob. ajayegi.
See lessSimilarly question me keh raha hai 3 or less than that..to use kam hue 3,2,1,0
to aise karke ham 4 term layege as done above aur sabka sum hamara answer hoga.. try ek bar khud se.
Ratio Analysis
Generally, if Average collection period is low, it is good for the company because; 'Paisa ana har agar to jaldi aye to badiya hai' While if Average payables period are high, it is good for the company because, 'Agar paisa jana hi hai to deri se jaye to better'
Generally, if Average collection period is low, it is good for the company because; ‘Paisa ana har agar to jaldi aye to badiya hai’
While if Average payables period are high, it is good for the company because, ‘Agar paisa jana hi hai to deri se jaye to better’
See lessCorporate WACC
its fine. See, 0.0711=(1-weight of equity)×0.6×0.06 + weight of equity×0.09 (I hope ye equation samaj agai hogi, sare percentage ko hataya hai isme bas) Ab iske agge aise solve hoga.. aur weight of equity ko hamlog (We) samaj ge... ok? 0.0711= (1-We)*0.0360 + We*0.09 Ab sabse phele is bracket wale kRead more
its fine.
See,
0.0711=(1-weight of equity)×0.6×0.06 + weight of equity×0.09
(I hope ye equation samaj agai hogi, sare percentage ko hataya hai isme bas)
Ab iske agge aise solve hoga.. aur weight of equity ko hamlog (We) samaj ge… ok?
0.0711= (1-We)*0.0360 + We*0.09
Ab sabse phele is bracket wale ko solve karege…jisme 0.0360 ko multiply kare (1-We) se
0.0711=0.0360 -We*0.0360 + We*0.09
next,
0.0711 – 0.0360 = We*0.054
0.0351= We*0.054
therefore, We= 0.0351/0.054
We=0.65 or 65%
weigh of equity is 65%
Ab bhi samaj na aye to 1 min extra deke hit & tiral method laga lo sare option me jisse WACC 7.11% ajaye wo answer hoga.
See lessConfidence intervals
See, logic in both the question is same. I agree this question is a bit confusing, I got stuck too, had to refer to book to understand again. But remember this logic now. When the confidence interval is widen...? It is widen when your degree of confidence that result will fall into the confidence inRead more
See, logic in both the question is same. I agree this question is a bit confusing, I got stuck too, had to refer to book to understand again.
But remember this logic now.
When the confidence interval is widen…? It is widen when your degree of confidence that result will fall into the confidence interval is Low… right? Just think once.
Also, degree of confidence is equal to (1-alpha)
Now, when alpha is high than your degree of confidence is low and now when your degree of confidence is low, your confidence interval will widen.
That is why answer is A in question. And same logic in Question 50.
Calculate IRR with only cash flow.
There will be multiple IRR in this case as values are changing more than one times. Like in year 1 you invested 100 now in year 2, you got back 1000 also invested 100, therefore net effect will 900 and again in year 3, you put 100. Due to this there will more then 1 IRR in this case.
There will be multiple IRR in this case as values are changing more than one times. Like in year 1 you invested 100 now in year 2, you got back 1000 also invested 100, therefore net effect will 900 and again in year 3, you put 100.
Due to this there will more then 1 IRR in this case.
See lessGetting bit confused in this ques kindly help
You can also simply find geometric mean (1.008*1.0112*1.0394)^1/3= 1.0194 now 1.0194-1 =1.94%
You can also simply find geometric mean
(1.008*1.0112*1.0394)^1/3= 1.0194
See lessnow 1.0194-1 =1.94%