Cfa L2 volume 4 pg no 99, item set 25- 33, question 30, why we take avg value GPI for revenue calculation.
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Cfa L2 volume 4 pg no 99 , questions 30, why we take avg value GPI for invention calculation.
In the formula for computing TPPC why don’t we take the amt of benefits paid to the ex employers? Is it because the impact is reflected under B/S as a deduction from FVA & Cash? Please help. Thank you!
Here the PBO amt = 3.967 was computed as, PMT 2000 N 15 I/Y 8% CPT PV = 17,119(approx) STO 1, then RCL 1 FV N 19 I/Y 8% CPT PV = 3,967 We did this computation using END mode in calci according to which our computed PV came ...
It’s said that under US GAAP as a practice of conservatism the actual Net Pension Asset (PV of planned asset – PV of obligation) is not reported instead an amt equal to asset ceiling is reported. I’ve a doubt regarding where ...
I’ve few doubts regarding Stock option wala part – There is a vesting period in case of stock option toh jis tarah apan ek call option ko ya toh expiry wale din ya phir usse pehle exercise kr skte h, can ...
In book Q-30, why we took sales at an average rate for conversion, please clarify. thanks
Mock 2 pm
Qualifying spv is an US GAAP concept and the one which is not enjoying residual return and suffer risk .No need to consolidate. Am I right?
why is second point wrong