Why have they multiplied again with 1.11? They have already calculated the current year end NAV after growing it for 1 year. Please explain this.
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RaniAdvanced
here they are saying that reit has positive correlation with equity in the long run but in CME PART 2 we studied that reits behave like real estate in the long run so it should have low correlation with equity ...
In solution to q6, in the bracket part, how they have written robust asset allocation as we have learnt that in RBAA even the correlation may change, betas may change. So how it will be robust?
In ans it has been said that alternative D has the highest probability of meeting 5% real return but I think it should be alternative G. Plz explain the ans.
How real assets is viewed as risk reducing invts even if they have lower liquidity?
Plz explain the last line. How infrastructure’s correlation with inflation is limited by utility rate regulations?
please explain why wont they be able to enjoy +ve carry in the second paragraph?
However now this yields are near zero, such strategy won’t work. Managed futures have to now focus on yield normalising i.e. rising and fixed income prices falling and they canntake short positions in fixed income to generate returns but they ...
Significant leverage may cause forced portfolio downsizing typically for quantitative market neutral managers. Please explain this statement.