While calculating capture ratio say we are calculating downside capture ratio for eg from the below data Rp: -2%, -3%, 4%, 1% Rb: -2.5%, -4%, 5%, -1% From this if we calculate Rp it will GM of -2%, -3% & will we consider ...
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Ayushi Jain5The Official Nerd
Please explain where did 0.1250 came from?
As discussed in class by Sanjay sir, there is strong positive correlation in between Return on fixed asset and currency movement, so generally there is higher hedge ratio in case foreign currency fixed asset portfolio. My question is, when there is ...
Amber SrivastavaThe Official Nerd
WHY ITS NOT APPROPRIATE IN QUESTION 4 PLZ ELABORATE AND WHAT BOROAD MEANS IN QUESTION 1 PLZ ELABORATE HOW INTERMEDIATE GOVT. IS BROAD
Amber SrivastavaThe Official Nerd
in anser it is written valley ranch has lower risk aversion even though risk appatilte is given low in question item set — it should have high risk aversion and second thing i ...
Amber SrivastavaThe Official Nerd
in question 5 why statement 5 is wrong The high-touch agency approach is typically used to execute large, non-urgent trades in fixed-income and exchange-traded derivatives markets.
Amber SrivastavaThe Official Nerd
my doubt is that — this small image says that higher trade urgency means lower execution but in big image we can see that impact cost is part of execution(trade cost) so ultimately due higher urgency impact ...
This is core answer says for events with low frequency and low severity – risk reduction is optimum But sir taught – risk retention is optimal Risk reduction is optimal for low severity and high frequency events I cant find diagram of this ...
samitjain9Intermediate
How can they take 100,000 as next years salary? clearly mentioned next 3 Years growth is ...
SmitIntermediate
The question asks which problems do reverse optimization most directly address, shouldn’t it be problem 3? The answer key has problem 4 mentioned.
