First of all apologies for asking such silly questions sir!!
Sir I have three doubts in this
First
Why the formula becomes positive
mean-z*sd at 84% ( indirectly 16%)?
Second
Shouldnt in this graph 84% which denotes 16% indirectly be on the left side of the graph? ( I am saying 16% bcoz of two reason first z score 1 is of 16% and second classes mein you taught us jab v rates r like say 90/95 it means 10/5 )
Third
When a particular area in one tail will fall on right side of the graph..?
Didn’t understand your doubt clearly. Can you please explain properly.
Apologies for asking these unstructured doubts sir!
Sir my doubt is in the graph of normal distribution.. when will a percentage.. say as in the photo I have 84% in lying on the right of the graph..
So when will a percentage fall on the right side of the graph?
2nd doubt is 84% k case mein u have taken z score as 1 … (16% area in ka z is 1)
It may be may because indirectly 84% mtlb 16% ka var…
But in that case 16% …10% ke aas pas hota is graph mein..itna dur nhi hota that on the right side of the graph..iska matlab 84% ka hi var hi aap nikal rahe hai..
So, my doubt is why z is taken as 1 in case of 84% ?
Toh iska mtlb z is 1 in case of 16% ..
Toh agar more 16% kisi v percentage ka var agar nikal k liye bole toh z in that case has to be taken as 1?