What is the meaning of indicate the segments due to the presence of Preference Share Capital and Borrowing (Debentures) as mentioned in Point No. (i)? How can we calculate that? Please upload an Audio for comprehension.
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In Point No. B since no new shares are issued, Therefore MCC should be = Cost of new debt as calculated in Point No. (A) [i]. But in solution MCC = WACC of cost of New Debt+New Preference Shares+New Equity Shares as calculated ...
In Step d. Value of M Ltd. should be np0 = {(n+m)P1-I+E}÷(1+Re) Why not this formula is used?
In MM Model with Taxes why the Value of Firm= NOPAT÷Kc, Why not (EBIT÷Kc)?
can anyone please tell me where can I find the audio clips of the lectures of FM-EFF for CAINTER
Sir Apne Leverage me interpretation me me likhwaya tha Kii if sale chnge by 1% EBIT will Change by 1% So sir Ques ne Jo nov2020 wala Questions no 2 krwaya tha Usme Sale Jo hui hai usko Assume krke chlna ...
How is it that MNPV (modified NPV) is less than NPV even if reinvestment rate is less than Kc. Because in MNPV it is reinvested, that should increase shareholders wealth even more.
where is questions as mentioned by sir in cls 11 continued (ca inter)
Que-17, how to draft answer of requirment (ii) i.e. why should you recommend project-C in spite of lower IRR?
hello sir, i found this que from news paper just to find the return i can able to get this ...