I dont understand
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we can say that he has a long position. saying he has a long exposure to risk, isn’t that wrong, bcoz it means that he will make a loss if the share prices rises.
why would compare it with BEY n not other add-on formuals. also, calculate and elaborate the solution
please solve using calci. also why have we divided forward rate by 2
explain correct ans b)
Explain the concept. ans- part A
Explain the entire answer. correct ans- part A
Please explain why would be subtract PV at year 0 and PV at year 3.
do this question in cashflow mode from calci
explain the question. are continuous compounding and stated annual rate supposed to be the same here? I’m confused btw the general meaning of SAR and Continuous rate here. please explain. (the right and is part A – 8%)